Originally Posted by maniem
I was trying to remember how the Reds had home field advantage in the Series that year. This was obviously before Sir Selig decided to give home field advantage to the all star game winner. And we all know Oakland had a much better record during the regular season. So how did the Reds end up with this? Am i missing something? Did they alternate between leagues each year?
Yes, they alternated between leagues, which, frankly, they should return to and forget all this hogwash about the All Star game having "meaning". If it's to have meaning, it should be the pride of your league winning the game.