Originally Posted by RedsManRick
With the first test, I would note that the 4:1 ratio required to "fail" the test is actually in the "normal" range and not necessarily a sign of having cheated. It merely serves as a filter to limit those who take the more complex/expensive test to whose who are more likely to have been cheating. So you wouldn't even need to have a false positive on the first test -- merely a correct positive that happens to be a natural condition.
Exactly,but as I understand,it was a trigger for the 2nd test that showed proved artificial testosterone as the source..?